Discussion Regarding Wiping the Feet
Question
In your earlier response, you mentioned the following:
Can you please explain this point bit more.
Response
To understand this better, please look at the Arabic text of the verse. Pay specific attention to the words 'رُؤُوسِكُمْ', 'أَيْدِيَكُمْ', and 'أَرْجُلَكُمْ':
In simple terms, the words 'أَرْجُلَكُمْ' and 'أَيْدِيَكُمْ' have a fatah before last parts 'كُم' whereas the word 'رُؤُوسِكُمْ' has a kasarah (that is, it is 'أَرْجُلَكُمْ' and 'أَيْدِيَكُمْ' as opposed to 'أَرْجُلِكُمْ' and 'أَيْدِيكُمْ'). If feet were to be under the commandment of wiping (امْسَحُواْ), then the actual word used for feet should have been 'أَرْجُلِكُمْ' (with a kasrah on ل) and not 'أَرْجُلَكُمْ' (with a fatah on ل). This can be appreciated further if the second commandment of wiping is carefully looked at where 'وُجُوهِكُمْ' and 'أَيْدِيكُمْ' are used (as opposed to 'وُجُوهَكُمْ' and 'أَيْدِيَكُمْ'). If feet were supposed to be an object of 'امْسَحُواْ', it should have had kasrah and should have been 'أَرْجُلِكُمْ'.
In grammatical terms, this is because the objects of 'امْسَحُواْ' are preceded by the preposition 'ب' and consequently must be in genitive case. On the other hand, the objects of 'اغْسِلُواْ' are in accusative. Since the word 'أَرْجُلَكُمْ' is also in accusative, it can only be an object of 'اغْسِلُواْ' and not an object of 'امْسَحُواْ' according to the grammar.
I have tried to explain simply as well as in grammatical terms. It is rather difficult to explain the grammar of a foreign language. If you have more questions, please do let me know.
